We see that is
all instances where Jesus is directly addressed, he is called Kurie,
never Kurios. No exceptions.
(Perhaps the most famous instance is where he is addressed "Kurie Eleison" ( κύριε,
ελέησόν) at Matt 17.15 "Lord have mercy" as in various choral works so
entitled.)
Q3 Did Thomas use the Vocative
when addressing Jesus in John 20.28?
No. As recorded under inspiration in Greek by the
Apostle John, Thomas did not say Kurie but Kurios.
Q4 Whom was Thomas referring to
when he said “My Lord and my God!”?
Thomas was referring to the Lord God, the one Jesus also called "my God".
This fact is not obvious in the English
translation, but is very clear in Greek.

Q5 Are there any similar instances of
people addressing God as My God or My Father?
Matt 26 and 27
Q6 Are there any instances of Jesus being
addressed as "My Lord" elsewhere?
Luke 12.45; 16.3; Rev 7.14
John 14.5: Λέγει αὐτῷ
Θωμᾶς·
κύριε, οὐκ
οἴδαμεν
ποῦ
ὑπάγεις·
πῶς
δυνάμεθα τὴν
ὁδὸν
εἰδέναι
Here we have
1.
Thomas,
2.
addressing Jesus,
3.
recorded by the writer John
using the vocative
Q7 In John 20.28 we
have the identical setup,
1.
Thomas,
2.
addressing Jesus,
3.
recorded by the writer John
but no
vocative. Why not?
Q8 Is
ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου
a Articular nominative functioning as a
Vocative? ANFAAV
The ANFAAV occurs four times in the
NT: Mark 15.34; Luke 18.11,13; Heb 10.17. Might John 20.28 be such
an instance?
Jerome, translating the Vulgate
translated the phrase as: "respondit Thomas et dixit ei Dominus meus et
Deus meus". Not "Domine mi et Deus Mi"